Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x))= g(y) [1/2] Re: how

Le 04/05/2024 à 05:41, Richard Damon a écrit :

On 5/3/24 9:41 AM, WM wrote:

I don't know whether actual infinity is true. But if so, then all natural numbers can be subtracted from the set of all real numbers. ==> They have no successors which must remain.
 From all definable natnumbers however we know that they have ℵo successors. ==> Not all are definable. A huge, infinite subset is dark.

But the problem is you are using logic that can't actually have the set of Natural Numbers,

Above you see it. But certainly you can't understand.

 You THINK you can subtract your set of "definable" numbers from the Natual Numbers in your system,

No, I don't. That is impossible. Try again.
Regards, WM