Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : invalid (at) *nospam* example.invalid (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 09. May 2024, 01:27:10
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v1h58u$8kct$1@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
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Am 08.05.2024 um 23:55 schrieb Jim Burns:
Hint: This formula is

∀n ∈ ℕ: ~∃^ℵo n ∈ (ℝ\ℕ). [WM]
nonsense. ("~∃^ℵo" is not the problem. It just means that "there aren't countably many" ...).
Simplified:
| ∀n ∈ ℕ: ~∃ n ∈ (ℝ\ℕ).
Does that make any sense to you?

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