Sujet : Re: because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : invalid (at) *nospam* example.invalid (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 09. May 2024, 02:11:09
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <v1h7re$8kct$5@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
Am 09.05.2024 um 02:54 schrieb Moebius:
Am 09.05.2024 um 02:27 schrieb Moebius:
Simplified:
>
| ∀n ∈ ℕ: ~∃ n ∈ (ℝ\ℕ).
>
Does that make any sense to you?
Maybe he just means:
~∃n ∈ ℕ: n ∈ (ℝ\ℕ))
or
∀n ∈ ℕ: ~(n ∈ (ℝ\ℕ)) .
Who knows?
Based on the nonsense he wrote in de.sci.mathematik it seems to me that he wants to state:
ℝ\ℕ n ℕ = {}.
In this case, I'd prefer:
X\ℕ n ℕ = {}
or even
X\Y n Y = {}.
What an incredible insight!