Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 13. May 2024, 21:21:12
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <9qWmbHyb8AqUW5fZIc9wSbv9HIY@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 10/05/2024 à 17:00, FromTheRafters a écrit :
WM explained :

Yes. But every n ∈ ℕ_def has ℵ₀ successors which never vanish by counting. They can be removed only collectively such that nothing of ℕ remains.
 Wrong,
Try to remove all natural numbers individually from ℕ. Fail.
Regards, WM

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