Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

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Sujet : Re: because g?(g?¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 14. May 2024, 12:15:22
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <KIK8U0X5Ce1AdBUkOJ_HCN270OE@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 14/05/2024 à 01:32, "Chris M. Thomasson" a écrit :
On 5/13/2024 1:21 PM, WM wrote:
Le 10/05/2024 à 17:00, FromTheRafters a écrit :
WM explained :
 
Yes. But every n ∈ ℕ_def has ℵ₀ successors which never vanish by counting. They can be removed only collectively such that nothing of ℕ remains.
>
Wrong,
 Try to remove all natural numbers individually from ℕ. Fail.
 Huh? ℕ is infinite in and of itself.
Nevertheless all natural numbers can be removed collectively. But not individually. That shows a difference, resolved by numbers which can only be treated collectively: dark numbers.
Regards, WM

Date Sujet#  Auteur
24 Mar 24 * V1414WM
24 Mar 24 +* Re: V20Chris M. Thomasson
24 Mar 24 i`* Re: V19WM
24 Mar 24 i `* Re: V18Chris M. Thomasson
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24 Mar 24 i   +* Re: V15Chris M. Thomasson
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26 Mar 24 i   i +* Re: V11Chris M. Thomasson
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28 Mar 24 i   i i i    `- Re: V1Chris M. Thomasson
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31 Mar 24 ii    i  i    `* Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets1273WM
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