Re: universal quantifiers, because g⤨(g⁻¹(x)) = g(y) [1/2] Re: how

On 6/7/2024 1:25 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:

On 06/07/2024 12:42 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

On 5/6/2024 6:34 PM, Chris M. Thomasson wrote:

On 5/6/2024 6:00 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:

On 05/06/2024 01:16 PM, Jim Burns wrote:

On 5/6/2024 2:59 PM, WM wrote:

Le 05/05/2024 à 19:59, Jim Burns a écrit :

On 5/3/2024 4:31 PM, WM wrote:

>

If all could be counted to,
they would not remain after every counted number.

>
Of those which CAN be counted.to,
each CAN be counted to.

[...]
>
Ross, WM thinks that there is a largest natural number. Shit happens.
>

>
{(1), (1, 2), (1, 2, 3), (1, 2, 3, 4), ...}
>
An infinite amount of different finite sets dealing with natural numbers
are already in the infinite set of natural numbers.

 How about Robert Grosseteste and aliquot parts.
 

If any finite is comprised of natural numbers then every element is already in the set of natural numbers... Fair enough?