Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 9/10/24 3:03 PM, WM wrote:

On 10.09.2024 13:41, Richard Damon wrote:
 

Why do they need a beginning (at that end)?

 Because there is none in the negative and some in the prositive. At that end.
 

The is none at the very begining of the negative end, because that "end" isn't in the set. The "bottom" of the set of unit fractions is 0.

There is a boundry, and that is 0, but that isn't the "first" of them, as it is outside the set.

 Either the set starts with one unit fraction or with a cloud of unit fractions.

If you want to think of it as a cloud, go ahead. Just remember, it is a VERY DENSE cloud, whose density approaches infinity as it get near 0. (and for the real and rational, its density is infinity everywhere).
Every one is at a different value, but the get closer and closer to each other as you try to zoom into that "end point".

 Regards, WM