Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 9/13/24 12:23 PM, WM wrote:

On 12.09.2024 21:12, Jim Burns wrote:

On 9/12/2024 7:39 AM, WM wrote:

 

⎛ Expecting infinity to be unsurprising
⎜ is like
⎜ traveling to Outer Mongolia and
⎝ expecting everyone there to speak perfect German.

 Expecting infinity to obey logic is justified.

>
Infinity is foreign.
Foreign isn't uninvestigatable,

 I investigate it. I am sure that at every finite step Bob remains. And there are no other steps, even if there are infinitely many.

Nevertheless (0,1] has a smallest point.
It is dark.
Where no point is, there is no interval.
Interval-ends without points are matheology.

>
"Obvious" has devolved into gibberish.

 The real axis has no gaps, not even a single one at the end of (0, 1] after zero.
 Regards, WM
 

Right, because between any to points (which have no width) is an infinite number of other points to fill that gap.
You just confuse the diffference in effect of "No Gap" between a finite system where points have a finite size, and infinite systems where points have no finite width, and thus are packed infinitely tight to each other, and thus aren't "next to" each other.