Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 9/21/24 4:02 PM, WM wrote:

On 21.09.2024 01:04, Richard Damon wrote:
 > On 9/20/24 2:13 PM, WM wrote:
 >> On 20.09.2024 05:35, Richard Damon wrote:
 >>> On 9/19/24 9:02 AM, WM wrote:
 >>
 >>>> "always another" is potential infinity. I am discussing actual infinity where all are there at once and no "always" is used.
 >>>
 >>> So, then how do you describe that fact that there IS always another.
 >>
 >> The reason is that only a potentially infinite collection of elements can be utilzed.
 >
 > But what keeps you from actually utilizing any of them?
 The fact that every used number belongs to a finite initial segment upon which almost all numbers are following.
 Regards, WM

So, we can just choose the finite initial segment that includes that number, and thus can use it,
What keeps us from doing that?
We can do it to ANY of the the numbers, thus they are all usable.
To do it to ALL the numbers, requires infinite work, but that is also ok in a logic that allows for real infinite sets.
Sorry, your logic has just exploded your mind by its contradictions cause by being pushed beyond its finite capabilities, which makes your "actually infinite" set not actually infinite, so just a contradiction.