Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

Am Sun, 22 Sep 2024 15:27:01 +0200 schrieb WM:

On 22.09.2024 01:24, Richard Damon wrote:

On 9/21/24 4:02 PM, WM wrote:

On 21.09.2024 01:04, Richard Damon wrote:
 > On 9/20/24 2:13 PM, WM wrote:
 >> On 20.09.2024 05:35, Richard Damon wrote:
 >>> On 9/19/24 9:02 AM, WM wrote:
 >>
 >>>> "always another" is potential infinity. I am discussing actual
infinity where all are there at once and no "always" is used.

So you can’t make general statements?

 >>> So, then how do you describe that fact that there IS always
 >>> another.
 >> The reason is that only a potentially infinite collection of
elements can be utilzed.

I don’t care, infinite is infinite.

 > But what keeps you from actually utilizing any of them?
The fact that every used number belongs to a finite initial segment
upon which almost all numbers are following.

Why are you talking about „potential infinity”?

So, we can just choose the finite initial segment that includes that
number, and thus can use it,

But you cannot choose the infinite rest.

Of course you can.

--
Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.