Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 9/25/24 11:09 AM, WM wrote:

On 24.09.2024 22:51, joes wrote:

Am Tue, 24 Sep 2024 21:38:17 +0200 schrieb WM:

On 24.09.2024 10:00, joes wrote:

Am Sun, 22 Sep 2024 15:28:38 +0200 schrieb WM:

>

Really existing sets of real unit fractions have two ends.

What is „an end”?

An end is where nothing follows.

Does it need to be a member of the set?
>

The end is a member of the set. But in many cases it is invisible and only proved by the fact that there is a smaller infimum or a larger supremum.
 Regards, WM

But not all sets have "ends" that are members of the set.
Your assumption that they do is just invalid.
For instance, the "end" of the set of x > 0 is the value x = 0, which is not a member of the set.
for *ANY* x > 0, it can't be the end, as x/2 will exists and be below it.
You can't get around it by calling it "invisible" as that isn't a defined term for this, just an artifact of your exploded to smithereens logic system that can't actually handle really infinite sets.