Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 9/25/24 11:14 AM, WM wrote:

On 24.09.2024 23:47, FromTheRafters wrote:

on 9/24/2024, WM supposed :

 

The function NUF(0) increases. ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 proves that it can gain only one unit fraction at any point x ∈ ℝ, hence NUF has to pass the value 1.

>
It means "For all" and says nothing about starting somewhere, moving, and ending somewhere else.

 Whatever it means. I see that there are no unit fractions below 0 and many above 0. Therefore NUF increases. At no point it can increase by more than 1.

Why not? The problem is that points are "dense" so you can't find a "first" point to start at.
At no point can it increase by one, as to go from a finite value to one higher, it needs to only have a finite number of unit fractions below it, but there is no first unit fraction to start the count, and at any finite value, since it has already gotten to Aleph_0, that can't be incrmented by one.
So, your NUF just is built on false concepts.

 Even if most mathematicians are far too stupid to understand this, I will repeat it on and on, maybe that sometime some will get it.

No, YOU are just too stupid because you think in terms of finite sets.

 Regards, WM