Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 30. Sep 2024, 12:10:41
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <e507809938271403a260c84186733222b5391d41@i2pn2.org>
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User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 9/29/24 3:08 PM, WM wrote:
On 28.09.2024 13:24, Richard Damon wrote:
And for a countably INFINITE set, like the Natural Numbers, there is only one end you can count from.
There is no reason to believe so if all elements are there.
Of courxe there is, as has been proven. You are just to stupid to understand.
How can there be a "last" number, (the high end) if part of the definition is that every number has a number after it?
Sorry, you are just proving your stupidity.
Regards, WM