Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

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Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?
De : invalid (at) *nospam* example.invalid (Moebius)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 02. Oct 2024, 17:16:26
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Am 02.10.2024 um 18:02 schrieb Moebius:
Am 02.10.2024 um 14:56 schrieb joes:
Am Wed, 02 Oct 2024 13:10:09 +0200 schrieb WM:
On 01.10.2024 22:05, Jim Burns wrote:
 
∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 shows ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n > 1/(n+1) [...]
which shows each unit fraction 1/n is not first.
 Right.
 
No.
 Yes.
 
∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 does not prove that n+1 is a natural
number.
 @Mückenheim:
 Right. But the following PEANO-AXIOM
        An e IN: S(n) e IN
 zusammen mit der Definition
        n+1 := s(n)
 beweist es, Du Depp.
 Since from them we get the theorem:
        An e IN: n+1 e IN    (*).
Hinweis@Mückenheim: Anders als Du, bewegt man sich, wenn man Mathematik treibt, nicht in einem luftleeren Raum (oder einem Wahnsystem), sondern in einem gewissen (mathematischen) Kontext. Hier sind das die verschiedenen Zahlenbereiche (wie sie in der klassischen Mathematik definiert sind): IN, die Brüche und/oder Q. (Im Hinblick auf NUF sogar noch IR.)
So kann man im Kontext der sog. KLASSISCHEN MATHEMATIK
        An e IN: n+1 e IN
als "gegeben" ansehen (also "voraussetzen").
In Deinem Wahnsystem oder auch im Kontext des sog. Utrafinitismus mag das anders sein. Um letzteren geht es hier aber nicht und ersteres ist keine Mathematik.

Hint: Jim DIDN'T claim that your trivial statement proves that n+1 is a natural number, but that it proves that for each and every unit fraction there's a SMALLER one [which it does together with (*)].
 [Well, actually, for showing this we would also have to refer to a definition of "unit fraction": u is a /unit fraction/ iff there's an n e IN such that u = 1/n.]
 
Note the infinite sequence 1, 2, 3, ..., ω-2, ω-1, ω. It consists of infinitely many finite numbers.
 @Mückenheim:
 Red' doch keine solche Scheiße daher, Mückenheim!
 1. Ist ω GANZ GEWISS keine "finite number", sondern /the smallest infinite ordinal number/.
 2. Sind die Ausdrücke "ω-2", "ω-1" nicht definiert. Du redest also wieder mal saudummen Scheißdreck daher.
 3. Ist 1, 2, 3, ... ω "technisch gesehen" keine "unendliche Folge" (jedenfalls keine mit Indexmenge IN).
 Kurz und gut: Nichts als purer Sachwachsinn, der auch nicht das Geringste mit dem in Rede stehenden Sachverhalt zu tun hat.
 

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