Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 10/4/24 2:36 PM, WM wrote:

On 04.10.2024 17:36, Moebius wrote:

Am 04.10.2024 um 17:10 schrieb joes:

Am Fri, 04 Oct 2024 11:23:13 +0200 schrieb WM:

>

This is the precondition: The unit fractions are all existing! If so,
then they are different fixed points on the positive real line above
zero. Hence one is the first after zero.

>
But the MAIN PROBLEM is his usage of "hence", which clearly is not correct. Why on earth should there be a "first after zero".

 Points on the real line are real points. One is the first.
 Regards, WM
 

Nope, and that is your problem, that property only hold at both ends for finite sets.
You are claiming a first on an end that is on the infinite end, which means there must be a highest finite number, and thus your infinity isn't an infinity, proving you are just a stupid liar.