Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 05. Oct 2024, 14:32:13
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <de18a828a76f55fbc532ebed55bb81a552f8b74f@i2pn2.org>
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User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/5/24 8:18 AM, WM wrote:
On 05.10.2024 13:12, Richard Damon wrote:
>
But actual infinity doesn't exist.
>
How can bijections between infinite sets exist then.
Regards, WM
Because the sets exist as what you think of as "potential" infinity, which are actaully existing sets, we just don't need to generate the full set before we use them (since that is the impossible step).
Infinte bijections take an infinite number of steps to complete directly, but can be seen correct by induction.
Your problem is a failed understanding of what it means to "exist"