Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

On 10/8/24 11:16 AM, WM wrote:

On 08.10.2024 14:46, Richard Damon wrote:

On 10/8/24 7:33 AM, WM wrote:

On 08.10.2024 02:53, Richard Damon wrote:
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His view is that if the values of the existing unit fractions exist, and we travel up the line from the negative side in increasing value, it only make sense that there should be a "first" point we reach.
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The concept, on the face of it, seems logical,

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of course, it is logical.

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No, it is erroneous, but based on something that might SEEM logical, but has a flaw in it due to an incorrect basic assumption
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What assumption is that?

That there is an end to infinity.
That you can actually "perceive" a complete infinity.

 

No, darkness doesn't exist, just as actual infinity is unreachable by finite beings.
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Your neglect of this fact

 is based on Cantor's work. But you are right in that actual infinity and dark elements are indissolubly connected.

No, you are abusing Cantor's work because you don't understand what infinity is, and are trying to apply FINITE logic to the infinite, and it just blows up.

 Regards, WM