Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 09. Oct 2024, 13:03:00
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <8a5e46e1c81560be6da06282423e04dd237a55f1@i2pn2.org>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/9/24 5:31 AM, WM wrote:
On 08.10.2024 20:01, Richard Damon wrote:
On 10/8/24 11:49 AM, WM wrote:
In WM's mind, anything that is "fixed" has ends, but an infinite thing
doesn't have all those ends.
>
Unless the infinity is shifted from the end to the centre.
>
But there is no "end" to shift.
If there is all, then there is an end.
Regards, WM
Nope. that is just logic of the finite.
Which, when applied to the infinite just blows itself up.
Which has been your problem all along.