Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?

On 10.10.2024 21:49, joes wrote:

Am Wed, 09 Oct 2024 15:49:27 +0200 schrieb WM:

As long as
all endsegments are infinite, the loss has spared an infinite set common
to all.

You really mean as long as only finitely many numbers are missing.

Yes. It is impossible that infinitely many numbers are missing and infinitely many are remaining.

 

If you can't understand try to find a counterexample.
Or use a finite example.

Notice anything? You should write it like this:
{1, 2, 3, ...}
{2, 3, 4, ...}
{3, 4, 5, ...}
...

That does not change that it is impossible that infinitely many numbers are missing and infinitely many are remaining.
Regards, WM