Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 15. Oct 2024, 01:00:01
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <53460f91-4542-4a92-bc4b-833c2ad61e52@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/14/2024 4:03 PM, WM wrote:
On 14.10.2024 21:47, Jim Burns wrote:
On 10/14/2024 2:07 PM, WM wrote:
Try again
considering the darkness of most numbers.
>
⎛ A set S of ordinals holds first.S or is empty.
>
That is true for visible ordinals only.
That is true for all ordinals.
That is what we mean by 'ordinals'.
Non.well.ordered ordinals belong with
non.three.cornered triangles,
among the self.contradictorily named.
It would look suspiciously as though
you (WM) _didn't know_ what an ordinal was,
if you hadn't been _told_ what it was,
by latest count, eleventy bazillion times.
Whether k or ξ or any ordinal is dark
is irrelevant to that description.
>
That description is irrelevant to
the mathematics of actual infinity which is what I pursue.
Perhaps there is a perfectly reasonable explanation
why you (WM) can only pursue that
while sounding as though you don't know
what an ordinal is.
So, what is that perfectly reasonable explanation?