Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 16. Oct 2024, 03:40:59
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <14d8a93b5b4e4a38df1906d805a58bcb455f7a23@i2pn2.org>
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On 10/14/24 9:34 AM, WM wrote:
On 14.10.2024 14:00, joes wrote:
Am Mon, 14 Oct 2024 12:35:56 +0200 schrieb WM:
False. n*2 > n for all numbers, even for infinite numbers.
Of course, and if the infinity is actual, they must already be in there.
They cannot be there because doubling all elements of a set of naturals doubles the space covered on the number line.
Regards, WM
Nope, because the line started being there and was without and end.
Your problem is your actual infinity seems to not actually be infinite, because you want to assume it still has the properties of finite numbers.