Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 19. Oct 2024, 09:16:21
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <vevpsl$3pi3s$2@dont-email.me>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 18.10.2024 00:34, Jim Burns wrote:
On 10/17/2024 2:22 PM, WM wrote:
A nonempty set without a first element
is not a set of only finite ordinals.
The set of dark numbers contains only natural numbers.
What you call a "set of finite ordinals" is not a set but a potentially infinite collection.
Proof: If you double all your finite ordinals you obtain only finite ordinals again, although the covered interval is twice as large as the original interval covered by "all" your finite ordinals.
Regards, WM