Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 20. Oct 2024, 15:27:16
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <38ff5b86-5ef1-4a19-b99e-f0f930641911@tha.de>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 20.10.2024 14:20, Alan Mackenzie wrote:
> WM <
wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> wrote:
>> Say mapping or multiplying, it is a process. But that is not important.
>> Important is only that in the image there are numbers which have not
>> been mapped because 2n > n.
>
> That "because" attempts to connect two unrelated statements there are no
> "numbers which have not been mapped". If you think there are, give an
> example.
They can be proven by mathematics: Density reduced, fixed number, interval enlarged.
>> If this is not accepted, then not all natural numbers of the image have
>> been in the original set.
>
> <Sigh>. The sets are infinite.
Infinite does not mean inaccessible to logic.
Regards, WM