Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 21. Oct 2024, 21:34:03
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <08a00c75-bf8d-4f9c-816a-83b8517ca04e@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/21/2024 2:25 PM, WM wrote:
On 21.10.2024 14:30, Jim Burns wrote:
On 10/21/2024 6:01 AM, WM wrote:
How can you (WM) not.know what 'preimage' means?
>
I have lectured analysis in German only.
I assumed that preimage is the set mapped to the image.
It's not an improvement that you allegedly think that
odd numbers are the result of doubling.
On 10/21/2024 6:01 AM, WM wrote:
On 21.10.2024 11:21, FromTheRafters wrote:
>
What's the preimage?
>
The range.
It is a complete set by assumption.
All its numbers can be mapped,
some of them not to the preimage.
That supports my theory that
you (WM) just blather, almost unconsciously, and
you expect to smooth over any of your blather
which has embarrassed even you
with more blather, but about dark numbers,
because dark numbers are strategically obscure.