Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

On 10/28/24 3:55 PM, WM wrote:

On 28.10.2024 12:21, Richard Damon wrote:

On 10/28/24 6:30 AM, WM wrote:

On 27.10.2024 18:05, Moebius wrote:

Am 27.10.2024 um 17:07 schrieb WM:
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After NUF(x') = 1

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There is no x' e IR such that NUF(x') = 1.

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There is NUF(0) = 0. NUF(1) > 0. Hence NUF increases. This cannot happen by more than single unitfractions with interruptions, according to mathematics:
∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 .

 

It can not happen AT FINITE VALUES, but can "between" them,

 Yes, at undefinable values.

Not "undefinied" but Not Finite values.
You "dark" numbers are just numbers you are making up to have number where there is not by your definitions.

 

like just above 0, where it jumps from 0 to Aleph_0

 Not at one point, definable or not.

But since points aren't "adjacent" (since they are dense) talking about changing "between" points is just undefined talk.

 Regards, W;