Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 31. Oct 2024, 13:22:59
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <d1d58306-89c7-4000-9663-ef76f7d0f12b@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 10/31/2024 4:13 AM, WM wrote:
On 31.10.2024 01:14, Jim Burns wrote:
On 10/30/2024 3:55 PM, WM wrote:
On 30.10.2024 18:05, Jim Burns wrote:
∀ᴿx > 0: ∀n ∈ ℕ: ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ∩(0,x]
>
∀ᴿx > 0: NUF(x) = |ℕ|
>
Is ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0 wrong?
>
Neither
∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) > 0
nor
∀ᴿx > 0: ∀n ∈ ℕ: ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ∩(0,x]
is wrong.
>
But the first formula predicts that
only single unit fractions
are existing on the real line.
How could NUF(x) grow from zero by more than 1?
Is
⎛ ∀ᴿx > 0:
⎜ ∀n ∈ ℕ:
⎝ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ∩(0,x]
wrong?
Is
⎛ ∀ᴿx > 0:
⎜ ∀n ∈ ℕ:
⎜ x > 0
⎜ ⅟x > 0
⎜ n+⅟x ≥ ⅟x > 0
⎜ ⌈n+⅟x⌉ ≥ ⅟x > 0
⎜ ⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ℕ
⎜ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ
⎜ x⋅⌈n+⅟x⌉ ≥ x⋅⅟x > 0
⎜ x⋅⌈n+⅟x⌉⋅⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ≥ 1⋅⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ > 0
⎜ x ≥ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ > 0
⎜ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ (0,x] ∧ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ
⎝ ⅟⌈n+⅟x⌉ ∈ ⅟ℕ∩(0,x]
wrong?