Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 02. Nov 2024, 01:55:22
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <e31f6713b3434dfbb4bbac1b61f58d292e9f8138@i2pn2.org>
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On 11/1/24 6:45 AM, WM wrote:
On 01.11.2024 00:43, Richard Damon wrote:
On 10/31/24 1:35 PM, WM wrote:
On 31.10.2024 12:36, Richard Damon wrote:
On 10/30/24 11:38 AM, WM wrote:
>
NUF(x) MUST jump from 0 to Aleph_0 at all real values x, as below ANY real number x, there are Aleph_0 unit fractions.
>
You cannot distinguish them by any real number? That proves that they are dark.
They are not finite values.
All unit fractions are finite values.
Regards, WM
So?
There is no Unit Fraction x where NUF(x) can be 1, as there will always be other unit fractions at x/2 and x/3, so NUF(x) must be > 1.
Thus, the value of NUF(x) can not be 1 at any finite value.
Thus your NUF(x) can only be 1 at a value you don't allow it to be used on, and you system is DEAD.