Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : noreply (at) *nospam* example.org (joes)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 02. Nov 2024, 13:30:45
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <9b4cc8f7e6cfb37f890fa1add31b4378e6c727cb@i2pn2.org>
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User-Agent : Pan/0.145 (Duplicitous mercenary valetism; d7e168a git.gnome.org/pan2)
Am Fri, 01 Nov 2024 11:07:27 +0100 schrieb WM:
On 31.10.2024 21:46, joes wrote:
At single points a function has a single value, not a jump.
It jumps in case of NUF by 1 at a unit fraction with respect to the
foregoing unit fraction and the many points between both.
Whether you define your pathological function with < or <=, at every
point it has one value (note it doesn't have the SAME value at every
point: 0 is an exception).
In the case of NUF, that value is infinite everywhere except at 0.
-- Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.