Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

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Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 02. Nov 2024, 17:02:51
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Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <82b707e7c00e3b65fdd6fd64e2a696a2dd389c47@i2pn2.org>
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On 11/2/24 6:15 AM, WM wrote:
On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
 
Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.
 Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.
 Regards, WM
Why?
That is just finite logic.
WHen we have an infinite set, both ends don't need to be there.

Date Sujet#  Auteur
2 Sep 24 * How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?2203WM
2 Sep 24 +* Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions?2098Richard Damon
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