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On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:Dumb ass! Just because they (the unit fractions) approach zero does NOT imply that there is a smallest one! God damn it. ;^)
Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.
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