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On 02.11.2024 17:02, Richard Damon wrote:Of course there is,On 11/2/24 6:15 AM, WM wrote:On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
>Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.>
Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.Why?There is no other logic.
>
That is just finite logic.
Regards, WM
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