Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

Am Sat, 02 Nov 2024 18:57:51 +0100 schrieb WM:

On 02.11.2024 17:02, Richard Damon wrote:

On 11/2/24 6:15 AM, WM wrote:

On 02.11.2024 01:55, Richard Damon wrote:
>

Infinite sets do not need to have both ends in them.

>
Between 0 and 1 there are unit fractions. Hence there must be a first
one. The interval without unit fractions and the interval containing
unit fractions are separated by the smallest unit fraction.

 

Why? That is just finite logic.

There is no other logic.

There is the logic of the infinite, unless you claim that finite sets
are in fact infinite. Now that I say it, it seems remarkably close
to your beliefs.

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Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:
It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.