Sujet : Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)
De : noreply (at) *nospam* example.org (joes)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 03. Nov 2024, 15:48:51
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <d06ba927c77aaba21817cd163ff31831db8ebef8@i2pn2.org>
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User-Agent : Pan/0.145 (Duplicitous mercenary valetism; d7e168a git.gnome.org/pan2)
Am Sun, 03 Nov 2024 13:50:36 +0100 schrieb WM:
On 03.11.2024 09:54, joes wrote:
Am Sat, 02 Nov 2024 18:57:51 +0100 schrieb WM:
On 02.11.2024 17:02, Richard Damon wrote:
Why? That is just finite logic.
There is no other logic.
There is the logic of the infinite, unless you claim that finite sets
are in fact infinite. Now that I say it, it seems remarkably close to
your beliefs.
Logic is always finite. Except that of some modern fools like Henkin.
Dude. The logic itself is finite, but not what it is talking about.
-- Am Sat, 20 Jul 2024 12:35:31 +0000 schrieb WM in sci.math:It is not guaranteed that n+1 exists for every n.