Re: How many different unit fractions are lessorequal than all unit fractions? (infinitary)

On 11/5/24 11:45 AM, WM wrote:

On 05.11.2024 04:08, Richard Damon wrote:

On 11/4/24 12:11 PM, WM wrote:

On 04.11.2024 13:14, Richard Damon wrote:

On 11/4/24 6:07 AM, WM wrote:

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By induction you can prove the sum n(n+1)/2 for every initial segment 1+2+3+...+n. But not for all natural numbers.

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But all Natural Numbers can be defined.

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All defined numbers can be summed. Not all natural numbers can be summed.

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Why not?

 because most cannot be defined.
 Regards, WM

But they ARE defined.
That you can't understand the definition, or accept that definition is YOUR problem, and just shows that you are nothing but a stupid flat-earther idiot that is stuck in his finite number system.
THe infinite has blown up your logic system and your mind and left behind the darkness you are stuck in.