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On 04.12.2024 18:16, Jim Burns wrote:On 12/4/2024 8:31 AM, WM wrote:
In your proof, it's two.>[...]>
Below: two is finite.
No, they may be finite or infinite.
The intersection of the infinite one is empty.>In two sets A and B which>
are non-empty both
but have an empty intersection,
there must be at least
two elements a and b which are
in one endsegment but not in the other:
a ∈ A but a ∉ B and b ∉ A but b ∈ B.
>
Same with a set of endsegments.
It can be divided into two sets
for both of which the same is required.
No.
Not all sets of end.segments
can be subdivided into two FINITE sets.
The set of all endsegments
can be subdivided into two sets,
one of which is finite and the other is infinite.
⎛ Assume that you (WM) are correct.GREATERS is inclusion.monotonic and {}.free.>
Then
>⋂GREATERS = {}>
is wrong.
E(1), E(2), E(3), ...⋂GREATERS = {}
and
E(1), E(1)∩E(2), E(1)∩E(2)∩E(3), ...
are identical for every n and
in the limit because
E(1)∩E(2)∩...∩E(n) = E(n).
For very naive readers I recommend the bathtub.No.
All its states have a non-empty intersection
unless one of the states is the empty state.
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