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On 18.12.2024 13:29, Richard Damon wrote:How is your f(n) an "infinite sequence, since n is a finite number in each instance.On 12/17/24 4:57 PM, WM wrote:Please give the quote from which you obtain a difference between>>
You claimed that he uses more than I do, namely all natural numbers.
Right, you never use ALL the natural numbers, only a finite subset of them.
"The infinite sequence thus defined has the peculiar property to contain the positive rational numbers completely, and each of them only once at a determined place." [G. Cantor, letter to R. Lipschitz (19 Nov 1883)]
and my "the infinite sequence f(n) = [1, n] contains all natural numbers n completely, and each of them only once at a determined place."
Regards, WM
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