Sujet : Re: how (Aristotle says "potential is actual and actual is potential")
De : ross.a.finlayson (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Ross Finlayson)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 21. Dec 2024, 04:00:05
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <uW2dndkR1P22svv6nZ2dnZfqnPednZ2d@giganews.com>
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On 06/10/2024 08:36 PM, Jim Burns wrote:
On 6/10/2024 4:48 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
On 06/09/2024 09:46 PM, Jim Burns wrote:
>
[...]
>
I like where you're going with this.
>
Please help me by telling me,
when I have guessed at what you mean,
whether I've guessed correctly or not.
>
| This putative f
| called EF the equivalency function,
| f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d, d -> oo
| in the continuum limit,
|
Date: Fri, 31 May 2024 18:37:34 -0700
>
I guess
| 0 <= n <= d
means
{0,1,…,d}
>
I guess
| f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d
means
f{0,1,…,d} =
{0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>
I guess
| f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d, d -> oo
means
lim(d → ∞) f(n) = n/d, 0 <= n <= d =
lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>
My guess is that
ran(f) = lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d}
>
Ross Finlayson,
is ran(f) = lim(d → ∞) {0/d,1/d,…,d/d} ?
>
Thank you in advance.
>
>
Re: how (Aristotle says "potential is actual and actual is potential")