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On 19.01.2025 11:42, FromTheRafters wrote:Set theory doesn't use "potential infinity".WM presented the following explanation :Use all natnumbers individually such that none remains. Fail.On 18.01.2025 12:03, joes wrote:No, it doesn't.Am Fri, 17 Jan 2025 22:56:13 +0100 schrieb WM:>Nevertheless it uses potential infinity.Correct. If infinity is potential. set theory is wrong.And that is why set theory doesn't talk about "potential infinity".
Quite the opposite.All "bijections" yield the same cardinality because only the
potentially infinite parts of the sets are applied.
The "complete count" is infinite.No, it is because these bijections show that some infinite sets' sizesThey appear equal because no completed count exists.
can be shown to be equal even if no completed count exists.
All natnumbers in bijections have ℵ₀ not applied successors.A bijection is not meant to be thought about sequentially?
∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo Only potential infinity isThis is not infinity.
applied.
In actual infinity all natnumbers would be applied:It absolutely is. Just give a rule for every natural.
ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...} = { }
But that is not possible in bijections.
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