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On 02.02.2025 14:47, joes wrote:Yes, and it has rules and proceedure that you don't seem to understand, and which it doesn't appear your logic allows.Am Sun, 02 Feb 2025 12:43:49 +0100 schrieb WM:Mathematical induction is a method for proving that a statementOn 02.02.2025 05:55, joes wrote:No, to *a* number, though which is arbitrary. Not to a *set* of numbers.Am Sat, 01 Feb 2025 19:23:29 +0100 schrieb WM:>Induction proves a sentence for every number, not for the set.But to all numbers.
You cannot extend a sentence about numbers to sets.
P(n) is true for every natural number n that is, that the infinitely many cases P(0),P(1),P(2),P(3),... all hold. [Wikipedia]
You seem to not understand the differnce between a number and a set of numbersNot described by the Peano axioms?Peano does not describe the set ℕ?N is not a natural number.
Greater than the number n are n+1, n+2, n+3, n+4, ...>Name one?Anyhow all natural numbers n and all A(n) are discarded.No, there are more than any finite number.
Regards, WM
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