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Am Sat, 08 Feb 2025 11:27:49 +0100 schrieb WM:Yes, they all belong to the infinite set of FISONs which are not changing U(A(n)) = ℕ.On 08.02.2025 01:14, Richard Damon wrote:All FISONs do.On 2/7/25 11:39 AM, WM wrote:>On 07.02.2025 17:10, Jim Burns wrote:>On 2/6/2025 2:32 PM, WM wrote:>>>>I prefer Wikipedia:>
∀P (P(1) /\ ∀k(P(k) ==> P(k+1)) ==> ∀n (P(n)).
That's intended to be part of the definition of ℕ₁
As well it is the definition of the collection of all FISONs.
Which is curious, when one considers that the collection of all
FISONs appears nowhere in it.
The axiom of induction says: If any property or predicate P satifies
(P(1) /\ ∀k(P(k) ==> P(k+1)), then it describes all elements of an
inductive = infinite set. That is satisfied by the set M of all FISONs
which are useless in U(A(n)) = ℕ.
So all elements are individually not needed.
All not needed elements belong to an inductive set.
Yes, the infinite set of useless FISONs is the set of all FISONs. But the first element of the set of FISONs which cannot be deleted is not existing.Therefore the set of FISONs which could have the unionWTF? The first element of set of all FISONs is A(0) = {0}.
ℕ has no first element.
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