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On 2/8/2025 4:54 PM, WM wrote:
May be called so.The axiom of induction says:Not for all inductive sets.
If any property or predicate P satisfies
(P(1) /\ ∀k(P(k) ==> P(k+1)),
then it describes all elements of an inductive = infinite set.
For all minimal.inductive sets.
minimal.inductive ≠ inductive ≠ infiniteThen you are wrong. Every inductive set is infinite.
No.That is satisfied by the set M of all FISONs which are useless in U(A(n)) = ℕ.Without exception,
the union of FISONs.after is ℕ
From the assumption U(F(n)) = ℕ I have derived that { } = ℕ.Therefore U(F(n)) = ℕ ==>Why that '==>' ?
U{ } = { } = ℕ.
My best guess at why you claim U{ } = { } = ℕNo.
is that you (WM) are assuming that,
for some FISON (ie, F(ω-1)) such that
there are no FISONs.after.
You (WM) haven't given any other reason.If U(F(n)) = ℕ, then F(1) can be omitted without changing the result. If F(k) can be omitted, then F(k+1) can be omitted too. The set of FISONs which can be omitted is an inductive set, i.e., all FISONs.
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