Sujet : Re: The set of necessary FISONs
De : james.g.burns (at) *nospam* att.net (Jim Burns)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 08. Mar 2025, 20:27:24
Autres entêtes
Organisation : A noiseless patient Spider
Message-ID : <a847e169-4b24-4d5e-9acf-49941173e4e2@att.net>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 3/8/2025 9:09 AM, WM wrote:
On 08.03.2025 12:58, Jim Burns wrote:
On 3/8/2025 3:45 AM, WM wrote:
You need not the intersection however
because
Z₀ can also be defined by
{ } ∈ Z₀, and
if {{{...{{{ }}}...}}} with n curly brackets ∈ Z₀
then {{{...{{{ }}}...}}} with n+1 curly brackets ∈ Z₀.
>
Zermelo's Axiom of Infinity describes Z
Z ∋ {} ∧ ∀a: Z ∋ a ⇒ Z ∋ {a}
Multiple sets satisfy that unique description.
That's an indefinite description.
>
My description is definite.
Your description is only definite because
ℕ ∋ n is definite.
What ℕ is,
the interesting part of your description of Z₀,
must be found elsewhere.
If only
{{{...{{{ }}}...}}} with finitely.many curly brackets
each with immediate.predecessor ⋃{{{...{{{ }}}...}}}
and with {} being one of its priors
are in Z₀
then, yes, that is a definite description.
>
And, yes, that seems to be what you meant.
If you ever want to make your descriptions clearer,
you won't be getting complaints from me.
>
That is exactly what I meant.
And that's also the induction of my argument
UF = ℕ ==> Ø = ℕ.
A proof by induction
(a proof by this.inductive.subset.is.the.whole.set)
is only reliable for
a set which is its.own.only.inductive subset.
ℕ is its.own.only.inductive subset.
Z₀ is its.own.only.inductive subset.
⋃{F} union of the set {F} of all FISONs,
is its.own.only.inductive subset.
For any set W which
is its.own.only.inductive subset (ℕ,Z₀,⋃{F},...),
∀j∈W:∃k∈W: j < k
Also, and equivalently,
¬∃k∈W:∀j∈W: j ≤ k
There is no last in W its.own.only.inductive.subset.
Your (WM's) argument is
⎛ (Matheologians say)
⎜ For each FISON F′ in {F},
⎜ the union ⋃{F:F′⊊F} of FISONs.after is unchanged
⎜ ∀F′∈{F}: ⋃{F:F′⊊F} = ⋃{F}
⎜
⎜ For the lastᵂᴹ (darkᵂᴹ) FISON F(ω-1),
⎜ the set {F:F(ω-1)⊊F} of FISONs.after is empty.
⎜ {F:F(ω-1)⊊F} = {}
⎜
⎜ Therefore,
⎝ ⋃{} = ⋃{F:F(ω-1)⊊F} = ⋃{F}
However,
{F} is its.own.only.inductive.subset.
No FISON in {F} is F(ω-1)
¬∃F″∈{F}:∀F′∈{F}: F′ ⊊ F″
If n ranges over only finite ordinals,
then
you didn't explicitly say that,
Induction ranges over finite ordinals.
The set of {#A:#A<#Aᣕᵇ} of finite ordinals
is its.own.only.inductive.subset.
Induction is reliable for {#A:#A<#Aᣕᵇ}
but the rest of your argument fades away.
which explicitness is the reason for writing,
and,
if you had explicitly said that,
you should have said somewhere
what a finite ordinal is,
>
That is not under discussion here.
That has been under discussion for decades.
I think that these decades of discussion
have been, in large part, you assigning
different meanings to 'finite', etc.
and matheologians (among whom I place myself)
trying to discern what your meanings are.
Here's my best guess:
definableᵂᴹ == finiteⁿᵒᵗᐧᵂᴹ == #A<#Aᣕᵇ
darkᵂᴹ == finiteⁿᵒᵗᐧᵂᴹ == big and #A<#Aᣕᵇ
matheologicalᵂᴹ == infiniteⁿᵒᵗᐧᵂᴹ == #A=#Aᣕᵇ
n is usually denoting
a natural number.
Do we mean the same by 'natural number'?
FISONs are finite by definition.
Do we mean the same by 'finite'?