Re: Collatz conjecture question

Le 24/03/2025 à 16:27, Python a écrit :

 Then -5=5

 -5 is neither a nor b.
 What you've written does not confirm your absurdity (a=b =/=> a^2=b^2), it only shows that from a^2 = b^2 your cannot conclude that a = b.
 Are you really that silly or is this just your usual hypocrisy? Both?

If you were intelligent, you would understand that our discussion isn't simply about a=b and therefore a²=b².
There must be something more "complex" to understand.
We continue: i²=-1.
At which point Hachel comes in: "Yes, that's good, but it's not enough. It must be said that we are now going to take control of mathematics, your television, and your bank account to pay for the war in Ukraine."
So I take control of the world's mathematics, and I set for all x, then, for imaginary numbers, i^x=-1.
The die is cast.
I don't allow dispute.
And I set i°=-1, i²=-1, (i²)²=-1 as long as I like.
I set the obvious (you have to follow the concepts to the end): i=-1.
You set f(x)=x².
So we have f(-1)=1.
But you set f(i)=i²=-1, which is clearly contradictory.
So there's a mistake. Where's the mistake?
We are certain that i=-1.
We are certain that f(-1)=1.
We are certain that i²=-1.
What happens when we say that f(i)=1 when theoretically x²=i²=-1?
Isn't the mistake in naming f instead of g?
Think about it.
R.H.