Sujet : Re: Contradiction of bijections as a measure for infinite sets
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 03. Apr 2024, 14:32:28
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <XXPbPRsdhaYaKB7KZdQr_ljWUOk@jntp>
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User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 02/04/2024 à 17:51, Jim Burns a écrit :
On 4/2/2024 3:36 AM, WM wrote:
If your assumption leads to "no bijection",
but there is a bijection,
then your assumption is wrong.
My trick proves that there is no bijection.
Or could you explain why first bijecting n and n/1 should destroy an existing bijection?
Regards, WM
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