Sujet : Re: Energy?
De : ross.a.finlayson (at) *nospam* gmail.com (Ross Finlayson)
Groupes : sci.physics.relativityDate : 30. Jul 2024, 04:43:47
Autres entêtes
Message-ID : <9U6dneBCi4_A_DX7nZ2dnZfqn_qdnZ2d@giganews.com>
References : 1 2
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On 07/29/2024 05:14 PM, The Starmaker wrote:
There is no one person on earth that can even define correctly the
word...Energy.
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Stefan Ram wrote:
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In a chapter of a book, the author gives this relation for a
system with mass m = 0:
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E^2/c^2 = p^"3-vector" * p^"3-vector"
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. Then he writes, "This implies that either there is no particle
at all, E = 0, or we have a particle, E <> 0, and therefore
p^'3-vector' <> 0.".
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So, his intention is to kind of prove that a particle without mass
must have momentum.
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But I wonder: Does "E = 0" really mean, "there is no particle."?
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300 years ago, folks would have said, "m = 0" means that there is
no particle! Today, we know that there are particles with no mass.
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Can we be confident that "E = 0" means "no particle", or could there
be a particle with "E = 0"?
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Here's the Unicode:
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E²/c² = p⃗ · p⃗
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and
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|This implies that either there is no particle at all, E = 0, or we
|have a particle, E ≠0, and therefore p⃗ ≠0.
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Entropy has two definitions, sort of opposite each other,
"Aristotle's and Leibniz'".
The energy or energeia then relates to the entelechiae,
content and connectedness, what results to dynamis/dunamis,
which are the same word, one for power the other potential.
So, energy is defined by other definitions, the least.