Re: Sync two clocks

Le 19/08/2024 à 22:32, "Paul.B.Andersen" a écrit :

 For this point, indeed, we can say that tB=(t2-t1)/2 but it is a convention M.

 It is a man made _definition_.
Einstein's _definition_ of simultaneity is based on symmetry.
The transit time is the same in both direction.
 It is possible to define simultaneity in other ways, but
it would be very inconvenient if the speed of light were
not isotropic.
 

 For A as for B, it is absolutely impossible to synchronize these two watches between them FOR them.
 As it is also impossible to synchronize A or B with the imaginary point M.
 Always, always, always, there will remain a universal anisochrony.
 And always, always, always, in the reality of things, if we have practiced a synchronization M:
 FOR A:
tB-t1=2AB/c
t2-tB=0
 FOR B:
tB-t1=0
t2-tB=2AB/c

 What an idiot!
 tB is a time measured by B.
t1 and t2 are measured by A.
They are proper times and can't be
different for A and B.
If the clocks are synchronous:
tB = (t1+t2)/2
t2 = t1 + 2AB/c
For both!
 

 I don't know if it will take Lengruche four years to understand that (a+b)(a-b)=a²-b²
but it is certain that in 30 years Ybmuche will still not have understood what I have just detailed here.

 If Ybmuche is a sane person, you are probably right. :-D

I see that you are not making any effort to understand what I am saying.
What else can I do, you keep repeating the same nonsense based on ignorance or the refusal of the notion of universal anisochrony?
You imagine a "flat present, a hyperplane of present time" that does not exist in nature, and from there, you no longer doubt anything, rendering completely ineffective all the clarity and evidence that I can give.
R.H.