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It is obvious that if it moves from left to right, transversely, or from right to left, the speed of light will be the same.What are you babbling about?
Let's say that I have not measured it yet, that I just know that it is very fast, so I cannot say precisely what it is.
But AT LEAST, can I suppose that it would be very surprising if it moved faster in one direction or another. Which would be an absurdity in a concept of refutation of absolute or privileged referent.
If I can measure this transverse speed from A to B (i.e. without possible Doppler effect that could distort my measurement) I will find Vo=3.10^8m/s.
And then, it's true, if I practice in the other direction, I will still find
Vo=3.10^8m/s.
It is equal in both directions, and it is logical that it should be.
I will now turn my device AB by 90°, and I will place myself this time, in a position perpendicular to what I was previously, and again, I will calculate the transverse speed of light from A to B.
Bingo!
From A to B, or from B to A, I will note Vo=3.10^8m/s
Tears of joy will then slowly flow down my pink cheek:
I have just proven something invariant.
Except that I am an idiot who has not understood anything at all, and who has not noticed the enormous bias that I have just described here.
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