Re: E = 3/4 mc? or E = mc?? The forgotten Hassenohrl 1905 work.

ProkaryoticCaspaseHomolog <tomyee3@gmail.com> wrote:

On Sun, 8 Dec 2024 5:42:07 +0000, ProkaryoticCaspaseHomolog wrote:
 

On Sat, 7 Dec 2024 21:35:57 +0000, J. J. Lodder wrote:
>

I'm sorry, but this is not the right answer,

>
So what are you saying, then? Are you saying that, because of the
definition of E=mc^2, it is totally required that 1 gram of electrons
annihilating 1 gram of positrons completely to electromagnetic
radiation must NECESSICARILY yield the same amount of energy as 1 gram
of protons annihilating 1 gram of antiprotons completely to electro-
magnetic radiation? That the equality of these two values is a matter
of definition, not something to be established by experiment?
>
Are you saying that because the current definition of c is
299,792,458 meters per second regardless of wavelength, that questions
as to whether gamma rays travel faster than visible light rays are
totally nonsensical?

 
In fewer words:
 
No experiment can measure a difference between the amount of energy
released by the complete annihilation of 1 g of (electrons + positrons)
versus the complete annihilation of 1 g of (protons + antiprotons).
True or false?

False, see previous.

No experiment can measure a difference between the speed of visible
light photons versus the speed of gamma rays. True or false?

False, already answered several postings back.
A class of experiments relevant to this question
are experiments that set an upper limit on the photon mass,
(the most plausible mechanism for such an effect)

Why for heavens sake would you even get such an idea?

Jan