Sujet : Re: how
De : wolfgang.mueckenheim (at) *nospam* tha.de (WM)
Groupes : sci.mathDate : 10. Apr 2024, 21:14:44
Autres entêtes
Organisation : Nemoweb
Message-ID : <beJ729k0Ep63Kb_qzgKz-TvZP80@jntp>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
User-Agent : Nemo/0.999a
Le 10/04/2024 à 01:06, Richard Damon a écrit :
On 4/9/24 8:16 AM, WM wrote:
Nope, because ONE set is not TWO Sets.
In the set ℚ there are as many indices n/1 as are indices n in ℕ. If indexing all fractions was possible, it was possible with indices n/1. But it isn't.
I didn't say "N_applied", I said N.
But what you can use belongs to ℕ_applied. Otherwise show a natural number that completes the bijection, i.e., which has not infinitely many pairings on front.
Nope, you can use ALL of the Natural Numbers.
You can use only a small minority because almost all remain unused:
∀n ∈ ℕ_used: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.
You "Complete" the bijection by showing the infinite sets map one to one by the formula of the bijection.
I show that Cantor's bijection fails.
Regards, WM