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On Fri, 4 Oct 2024 18:17:06 +0000, Paul.B.Andersen wrote:
Den 03.10.2024 22:23, skrev Paul.B.Andersen:Den 03.10.2024 06:18, skrev rhertz:>
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1904 ORIGINAL LORENTZ TRANSFORMS
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x' = β x ; Lorentz Eq. 4
t' = t/β - β vx/c² ; Lorentz Eq. 5
No, this is not the Lorentz transform.
Lorentz used the Galilean transform first, and then he
"transform these formulae further by a change of variables".
It's is these two transforms together that make the Lorentz transform.
See:
https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf
He doesn't explain the "change of variables", but the purpose is clear.
To "explain" the Michelson-Morley experiment, Maxwell's equation
must be invariant. (Idea from Poincare.) So "the change of variables"
was what they had to be to achieve that purpose.
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ARE YOU BECOME, FINALLY, FULL RETARDED?? SHAME ON YOU!Quite. Directly from Lorentz.
IT COMES DIRECTLY FROM 1904 LORENTZ PAPER:
H.A. Lorentz, Electromagnetic phenomena in a system moving with any
velocity smaller than that of light
1904 ORIGINAL LORENTZ TRANSFORMS
x' = β x ; Lorentz Eq. 4
t' = t/β - β vx/c² ; Lorentz Eq. 5 (HERE IS LOCAL TIME WITH ETHER)
Making x = X - vt (Einstein did that, to get rid of ether)No, Einstein never used the Galilean transform, but Lorentz did.
t' = β (t - vX/c²)See:
x' = β (X - vt)
See:Einstein started with the second postulate, the speed of light
is invariant (the same in all inertial frames).
So Einstein didn't copy anything, but since the invariance of Maxwell's
equation follows from the invariance of the speed of light,
they ended up with the same transform.
I wrote: "Lorentz called the t' coordinate ’local time’">
You can see what Lorentz meant by "local time" in chapter 3 here:
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https://paulba.no/div/LTorigin.pdf
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Quote:
"Lorentz called the t' coordinate ’local time’, as opposed to
the t coordinate which was the ’absolute time’ inherited from Newton.
But note that this ’local time’ is what it shown by local clocks,
and it is the ’local time’ that can be measured.
The ’absolute time’ t is unobservable."
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Only a blind, deaf and stupid relativist like you deny WRITTEN HISTORY!Sometimes your misinterpretation of the text you are reading
Here is what Lorentz wrote about "local time" in his 1904 paper (p.813):
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"The variabie t' may be called the "local time"; indeed, tor k = 1,
1 = 1 it becomes identical with what I have formerly understood by
this name,"
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DID YOU GET IT, IGNORANT?
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